I feel compelled to comment that the results of the poll in this weeks' paper on the satisfaction of the results of the recent municipal must be wrong. Since we all exercised our democratic right to vote (who wouldn't), unless some of us changed our minds after we cast our ballots, or the poll was not sufficiently large enough to reflect an accurate cross-section of the population, how could more 50% of the people who voted be dissatisfied with the results? The only other possibility (and I know that we are sliding towards the Twilight Zone here) is that some of the people who don't like the outcome didn't vote. I know that it seems inconceivable that this could happen, but we must look at all possibilities.
Dale Coles